NEET Question Paper and Answers Keys with Detailed Solutions
91.
In
India, the organisation responsible for assessing
the safety of introducing
genetically modified organisms for
public use is
(1)
Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
(2)
Council
for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
(3) Indian Council of Medical
Research (ICMR)
(4)
Genetic Engineering
Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. Indian Government has setup organisation such
as GEAC (Genetic
Engineering Appraisal Committee) which will make decisions regarding the
validity of GM research
and safety of introducing
GM-organism for public services. (Direct
from NCERT).
92.
The
correct order of steps in Polymerase
Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.
This technique is used for making multiple copies of gene (or DNA) of interest
in vitro.
Each cycle has three steps
(i) Denaturation
(ii) Primer annealing
(iii) Extension of primer
93.
Select the correct match
(1) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(3) Ribozyme -
Nucleic acid
(4) G. Mendel - Transformation
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic acid.
94.
A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented
by a foreign company, though
such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to
(1) Lerma Rojo (2) Sharbati Sonora
(3) Co-667 (4) Basmati
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US patent and trademark
office that was actually been derived from Indian
farmer’s varieties.
The diversity of rice in
India is one of the richest in the world, 27 documented varieties of Basmati
are grown in India.
Indian basmati was
crossed with semi-dwarf varieties and claimed as an invention or a novelty.
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are
varieties of wheat.
95.
Which
of the following pairs is
wrongly matched?
(1)
XO type sex : Grasshopper determination
(2)
ABO
blood grouping : Co-dominance
(3) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple
alleles
(4)
T.H. Morgan : Linkage
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Starch synthesis in
pea is controlled by pleiotropic gene.
Other options (1, 2 & 4) are
correctly matched.
96.
Select the correct statement
(1) Spliceosomes take part in translation
(2)
Punnett square was developed by a British scientist
(3) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Punnett square was
developed by a British geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
–
Franklin
Stahl proved semi-conservative
mode of replication.
–
Transduction
was discovered by Zinder and Laderberg.
–
Spliceosome
formation is part of post-
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
97.
The experimental
proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Plant (2) Bacterium
(3) Fungus (4) Virus
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.
Semi-conservative DNA replication was first shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli
by Matthew Meselson
and Franklin Stahl.
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98.
Which of the
following flowers only once in its life-time?
(1) Mango (2) Jackfruit (3) Bamboo species (4) Papaya
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower generally only once in its life-time
after 50- 100 years.
Jackfruit, papaya and
mango are polycarpic i.e., produce
flowers and fruits
many times in their
life-time.
99.
Offsets are produced by
(1) Parthenocarpy
(2) Mitotic divisions
(3) Meiotic divisions
(4) Parthenogenesis
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Offset is a
vegetative part of a plant, formed by mitosis.
–
Meiotic divisions do
not occur in somatic cells.
–
Parthenogenesis
is the formation of embryo
from ovum or egg without
fertilisation.
–
Parthenocarpy is the
fruit formed without fertilisation, (generally
seedless)
100.
Select the correct match
(1)
Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl - Pisum sativum
(2)
Alfred Hershey
and - TMV Martha Chase
(3) Alec Jeffreys -
Streptococcus pneumoniae
(4)
Francois Jacob and -
Lac operon Jacques Monod
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.
Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed model of gene regulation known as
operon model/lac operon.
–
Alec
Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting
technique.
–
Matthew
Meselson and F. Stahl
– Semi-
conservative DNA replication in E. coli.
–
Alfred
Hershey and Martha Chase –
Proved DNA as genetic material not protein
101.
Which of the
following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
(1) Oil content
(2) Cellulosic intine
(3) Pollenkitt
(4) Sporopollenin
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.
Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore
it is helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.
Cellulosic Intine – Inner
sporoderm layer of pollen grain known as intine made up cellulose & pectin.
Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.
102.
Natality refers to
(1) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(2) Birth rate
(3) Death rate
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Natality refers to birth rate.
•
Death rate – Mortality
•
Number of individual – Immigration entering a habitat is
•
Number of individual – Emigration leaving the habital
103.
World Ozone Day is celebrated on
(1) 16th September
(2) 21st April
(3) 5th June
(4) 22nd April
Answer (1)
Sol. World Ozone day is celebrated on 16th
September.
5th June - World Environment Day 21st April - National Yellow Bat Day 22nd April - National Earth Day
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104.
Which
of the following is a secondary pollutant?
Sol. UV rays act on CFCs,
releasing Cl atoms, chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
(1)
SO2
(2)
CO2
method converting into oxygen
(3) CO (4) O3
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant.
These are formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
CO – Quantitative
pollutant CO2 – Primary pollutant SO2 – Primary pollutant
105.
Niche is
(1)
the range of
temperature that the organism needs to live
(2)
the
physical space where an organism lives
(3) all the biological factors in the organism's
environment
(4)
the functional role played by the organism where it lives
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. Ecological
niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It refers the
functional role played
by the organism where it lives.
106.
What
type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the
following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g Primary
consumer : 60 g Primary producer : 10 g
(1) Upright pyramid of numbers
(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Inverted pyramid of biomass
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
• The given data depicts the inverted pyramid of biomass, usually found in
aquatic ecosystem.
•
Pyramid of energy is always upright
•
Upright pyramid of
biomass and numbers are not possible, as
the data depicts primary producer is less than primary consumer and this is less than
secondary consumers.
107.
In
stratosphere, which of the
following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and
release of molecular oxygen?
(1)
Fe (2) Cl
(3) Carbon (4) Oxygen
Answer ( 2 )
Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related
to ozone layer depletion
108.
The two functional groups characteristic of sugars
are
(1)
Carbonyl and phosphate
(2)
Carbonyl and methyl
(3)
Hydroxyl and methyl
(4)
Carbonyl and hydroxyl
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. Sugar is a common
term used to denote carbohydrate.
Carbohydrates are
polyhydroxy aldehyde, ketone or their derivatives, which means they have
carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
109.
Which
among the following is
not a
prokaryote?
(1)
Nostoc
(2)
Mycobacterium
(3)
Saccharomyces
(4)
Oscillatoria
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Saccharomyces i.e.
yeast is an eukaryote (unicellular fungi)
Mycobacterium
– a bacterium
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
110.
The Golgi complex participates in
(1)
Respiration in bacteria
(2)
Formation of secretory vesicles
(3)
Fatty acid breakdown
(4)
Activation of amino acid
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Golgi complex, after
processing releases secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
111.
Which of the
following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
(1) NADPH (2) NADH
(3) ATP (4) Oxygen
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. ATP, NADPH and
oxygen are products of light
reaction, while NADH is a product of
respiration process.
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112.
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
(1) It takes part in spindle
formation
(2) It is a membrane-bound structure
(3)
Larger
nucleoli are present in dividing
cells
(4)
It
is a site
for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. Nucleolus is a non
membranous structure and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
113.
Stomatal movement is not affected by
(1) O2 concentration
(2) Light
(3) Temperature
(4) CO2 concentration
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. Light, temperature
and concentration of CO2 affect opening and closing of stomata while
they are not affected by O2 concentration.
114.
The
stage during which separation of the
paired homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) Diakinesis (2) Diplotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.
Synaptonemal complex disintegrates. Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage
i.e. chiasmata start to shift towards end.
115.
Stomata in grass leaf are
(1) Rectangular
(2) Kidney shaped
(3) Dumb-bell shaped
(4) Barrel shaped
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Grass being a
monocot, has Dumb-bell shaped stomata in their leaves.
116.
Secondary
xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by
(1) Phellogen
(2) Vascular cambium
(3) Apical meristems
(4) Axillary meristems
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
•
Form secondary xylem
towards its inside and secondary phloem towards outsides.
•
4 – 10 times more secondary
xylem is produced than secondary phloem.
117.
Pneumatophores occur in
(1)
Carnivorous plants
(2)
Free-floating hydrophytes
(3)
Halophytes
(4)
Submerged hydrophytes
Answer (3)
Sol. · Halophytes like mangrooves have pneumatophores.
·
Apogeotropic
(–vely geotropic) roots having lenticels called pneumathodes to
uptake O2.
118.
Casparian strips occur in
(1)
Cortex (2) Pericycle
(3) Epidermis (4) Endodermis
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial and inner tangential wall.
•
It is suberin rich.
119.
Plants
having little or no secondary growth
are
(1)
Conifers
(2)
Deciduous angiosperms
(3)
Grasses
(4)
Cycads
Answer (3)
Sol. Grasses are monocots
and monocots usually do not have secondary growth.
Palm like monocots have anomalous secondary growth.
120.
Sweet potato is a modified
(1) Tap root
(2) Adventitious root
(3) Stem
(4) Rhizome
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Sweet potato is a
modified adventitious root for storage of food
•
Rhizomes are underground modified stem
•
Tap
root is primary root directly
elongated from the redicle
ET (UG) - 2018 (Code-AA) ACHLA
121.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
Salvinia is homosporous
(3)
Ovules are not
enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both
Cycas and Cedrus
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. • Gymnosperms
have naked ovule.
•
Called phanerogams without womb/ovary
122.
Select the wrong statement :
(1) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans
(2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(3) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae
(4)
Mitochondria are the
powerhouse of the cell in all
kingdoms except Monera
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. Pseudopodia are
locomotory structures in sarcodines (Amoeboid)
123.
After karyogamy
followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
(1)
Agaricus
(2)
Alternaria
(3)
Neurospora
(4)
Saccharomyces
Answer ( 1 )
Sol.
· In Agaricus
(a genus of
basidiomycetes), basidiospores or meiospores are produced exogenously.
·
Neurospora (a genus
of ascomycetes) produces
ascospores as meiospores but endogenously inside the ascus.)
·
Alternaria (a genus
of deuteromycetes) does not produce sexual spores.
·
Saccharomyces (Unicellular ascomycetes) produces ascospores, endogenously.
124.
Match the items
given in Column I with those in Column II
and select the correct option
given below:
Column I Column II
a.
Herbarium (i) It is a place
having a
collection of preserved
plants and animals
b.
Key (ii) A list
that enumerates
methodically
all the species found in an area with
brief description aiding identification
c.
Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
and pressed plant
specimens mounted on sheets are kept
d.
Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.
a b c d
(1)
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2)
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3)
(i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4)
(iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. • Herbarium – Dried
and pressed plant
specimen
•
Key – Identification of various taxa
•
Museum – Plant and animal
specimen are preserved
•
Catalogue – Alphabetical
listing of
species
125.
Winged pollen grains are present in
(1)
Mango (2) Cycas
(3) Mustard (4) Pinus
Answer (4)
Sol. In Pinus, winged pollen
grains are present.
It is extended outer
exine on two lateral sides
to form the wings of pollen. It
is the characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
Pollen grains of Mustard,
Cycas & Mango are not winged shaped.
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126.
Which one is wrongly matched?
(1)
Gemma cups – Marchantia
(2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(3)
Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
(4)
Unicellular organism – Chlorella
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
• Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae, where
asexual spores and gametes are non-motile or non-flagellated.
•
Other
options (1, 2 & 4) are correctly
matched
127.
Which
of the following options correctly represents
the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema,
respectively?
(1) Increased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles
(2)
Increased number of bronchioles;
Increased respiratory surface
(3)
Inflammation
of bronchioles;
Decreased respiratory surface
(4)
Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Asthma is a difficulty in breathing
causing wheezing due to
inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles. Emphysema
is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which
respiratory surface is decreased.
128.
Match the items
given in Column I with those in Column II
and select the correct option
given below :
Column I Column II
a.
Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
and left ventricle
b.
Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
ventricle and pulmonary artery
c.
Semilunar valve iii. Between right
atrium and right ventricle
a b c
(1)
i ii iii
(2)
i iii ii
(3)
iii i ii
(4)
ii i iii
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Tricuspid valves are AV valve present between
right atrium and right
ventricle. Bicuspid valves are AV valve
present between left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves are
present at the openings of
aortic and pulmonary aorta.
129.
Match the items
given in Column I with those in Column II
and select the correct option
given below:
Column I Column II
a.
Tidal volume i.
2500 – 3000 mL
b.
Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL volume
c.
Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL volume
d.
Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL a b c d
(1)
i iv ii iii
(2)
iii i iv ii
(3)
iii ii i iv
(4)
iv iii ii i
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or expired during normal respiration. It is approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve volume is additional
volume of air a person can
inspire by a forceful
inspiration. It is around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve volume is additional volume of air
a person can be expired by a forceful
expiration. This averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
Residual volume is volume
of air remaining in lungs even after
forceful expiration. This averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
130.
The transparent lens
in the human eye is held in its place by
(1) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(2) ligaments attached to the iris
(3) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(4)
smooth
muscles attached to the ciliary body
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
Lens in the human eye is held in its place by suspensory ligaments attached to
the ciliary body.
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131.
Which
of the following is an amino
acid derived hormone?
(1)
Estradiol
(2)
Ecdysone
(3)
Epinephrine
(4)
Estriol
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino acid by the removal of carboxyl
group. It is a catecholamine.
132.
Which of the
following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
(1)
Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(3)
Aldosterone and Prolactin
(4)
Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast and inhibits osteoclast. In
an ageing female osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency
of estrogen. Parathormone promotes mobilisation of calcium from bone
into blood. Excessive activity of parathormone
causes demineralisation
leading to osteoporosis.
133.
Which of the following structures or regions
is incorrectly paired with its functions?
(1)
Hypothalamus : production of
releasing hormones and regulation of
temperature, hunger and thirst.
(2)
Limbic system : consists
of fibre
tracts that interconnect different
regions of brain; controls movement.
(3)
Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
and cardiovascular reflexes.
(4)
Corpus callosum : band of fibers
connecting left and right cerebral
hemispheres.
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls all emotions in our body
but not movements.
134.
The amnion of
mammalian embryo is derived from
(1) mesoderm and trophoblast
(2) endoderm and mesoderm
(3) ectoderm and mesoderm
(4) ectoderm and endoderm
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. The extraembryonic
or foetal membranes are amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on
outer side and ectoderm on inner side.
Chorion is formed from
trophoectoderm and mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac membrane have
mesoderm on outerside and endoderm in inner side.
135.
Hormones
secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(4)
hCG,
progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. Placenta releases human chorionic gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which stimulates the Corpus luteum during pregnancy to release estrogen
and
progesterone
and also rescues corpus luteum from regression.
Human placental lactogen (hPL)
is involved in growth of body of mother
and breast. Progesterone maintains pregnancy,
keeps the uterus silent by
increasing uterine threshold to contractile stimuli.
136.
The difference
between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
(1)
In
spermiogenesis
spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous
tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed.
(2)
In
spermiogenesis
spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids
are formed.
(3)
In spermiogenesis
spermatids are formed, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed.
(4)
In
spermiogenesis
spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released
from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
Answer ( 4 )
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Sol.
Spermiogenesis is transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa whereas spermiation
is the release of the sperms from sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
tubule.
137.
The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
(1) is an IUD.
(2)
increases
the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation
in females.
(3)
blocks estrogen
receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week pill. It contains centchroman
and its functioning is based upon
selective Estrogen Receptor modulation.
138.
Ciliates differ from all other
protozoans in
(1) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(2)
having a contractile
vacuole for removing excess water
(3) using flagella for locomotion
(4) having two types of nuclei
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.
Ciliates differs from other protozoans in having two types of nuclei.
eg. Paramoecium have two
types of nuclei i.e. macronucleus
& micronucleus.
139.
Identify
the vertebrate group of animals
characterized by crop and
gizzard in its digestive system
(1) Aves (2) Reptilia
(3) Amphibia (4) Osteichthyes
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. The digestive tract of Aves has additional chambers in their
digestive system as crop and Gizzard.
Crop is concerned
with storage of food grains.
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds
used to crush food grain.
140.
Which
of the following features is used
to identify a male cockroach from
a female cockroach?
(1) Forewings with darker tegmina
(2) Presence of caudal styles
(3)
Presence of a boat shaped sternum
on the 9th abdominal segment
(4) Presence of anal cerci
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.
Males
bear a pair of short,
thread like anal styles which are absent in females.
Anal/caudal styles arise
from 9th abdominal
segment in male cockroach.
141.
Which
one of these animals is
not a homeotherm?
(1) Camelus (2) Chelone
(3) Macropus (4) Psittacula
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.
Homeotherm are animals that maintain constant body temperature, irrespective of
surrounding temperature.
Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
Chelone (Turtle)
belongs to class reptilia which is
Poikilotherm or cold blood.
142.
Which
of the following animals does not
undergo metamorphosis?
(1) Moth (2) Tunicate
(3) Earthworm (4) Starfish
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Metamorphosis refers
to transformation of larva into adult.
Animal that perform metamorphosis are
said to have indirect development.
In earthworm development
is direct which means no larval stage and hence no metamorphosis.
143.
Which of the
following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Diatoms
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Euglenoids
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
144.
Which
one of the following
population interactions is widely used in medical science for the
production of antibiotics?
(1) Parasitism (2) Mutualism
(3) Commensalism (4) Amensalism
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)
·
Antibiotics are
chemicals secreted by one microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which harm
other microbes
(eg :
Staphylococcus)
·
It
has no effect on Penicillium or the
organism which produces it.
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145.
All
of the following
are included in ‘ex-situ conservation’ except
(1)
Botanical gardens
(2)
Sacred groves
(3)
Wildlife safari parks
(4)
Seed
banks
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. · Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
·
Represent
pristine forest patch as protected by Tribal groups.
146.
Match the items
given in Column I with those in Column II
and select the correct option
given below :
Column-I Column-II
a.
Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
b.
Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
c.
Snow
blindness iii. Nutrient
enrichment
d.
Jhum cultivation iv. Waste
disposal
a b c d
(1)
iii iv i ii
(2)
i iii iv ii
(3)
ii i iii iv
(4)
i ii iv iii
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. a.
|
Eutrophication
|
iii.
|
Nutrient
|
b.
|
Sanitary
landfill
|
iv.
|
enrichment
Waste disposal
|
c.
|
Snow blindness
|
i.
|
UV-B radiation
|
d.
|
Jhum cultivation
|
ii.
|
Deforestation
|
147.
In a growing population of a country,
(1)
reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal
in number.
(2)
reproductive
individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
(3)
pre-reproductive
individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.
(4)
pre-reproductive
individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or the younger population size is larger
than the reproductive group,
the population will be an increasing population.
148.
Which
part of poppy
plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”?
(1) Roots (2) Latex
(3) Flowers (4) Leaves
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.
‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is formed by acetylation of morphine.
It is obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of Poppy plant.
149.
All
of the following are part of
an operon except
(1) an enhancer
(2) structural genes
(3) an operator
(4) a promoter
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. • Enhancer
sequences are present in
eukaryotes.
•
Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
150.
A woman has an
X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes.
This chromosome can be inherited by
(1) Only grandchildren
(2) Only sons
(3) Only daughters
(4) Both sons and daughters
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. • Woman
is a carrier
•
Both son & daughter inherit
X–chromosome
•
Although only son be the diseased
151.
According to Hugo de
Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
(1) Phenotypic variations
(2) Saltation
(3) Multiple step mutations
(4) Minor mutations
Answer ( 2 )
Sol.
As per mutation theory given by Hugo de Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/ saltation.
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-AA) ACHLA
152.
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand
of a gene. What will
be the corresponding sequence of
the transcribed mRNA?
(1) ACCUAUGCGAU (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) AGGUAUCGCAU (4) UCCAUAGCGUA
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide sequence except,
‘T’ – Thymine is replaced
by ‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
153.
Match the items
given in Column I with those in Column II
and select the correct option
given below :
Column I Column II
a.
Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown
of
endometrial lining
b.
Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
c.
Menstruation iii.
Luteal Phase a b c
(1)
ii iii i
(2)
i iii ii
(3)
iii ii i
(4)
iii i ii
Answer ( 1 )
Sol.
During proliferative phase, the follicles start developing, hence, called
follicular phase.
Secretory phase is also
called as luteal phase mainly controlled by progesterone secreted by corpus
luteum. Estrogen further thickens the endometrium maintained by progesterone.
Menstruation
occurs
due to decline in progesterone level and involves
breakdown of overgrown endometrial lining.
154.
Match the items
given in Column I with those in Column II
and select the correct option
given below :
Column I Column II
a.
Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
uric acid in joints
b.
Gout ii. Mass of crystallised salts
within the kidney
c.
Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
glomeruli
d.
Glomerular iv.
Presence of nephritis glucose
in urine
a b c d
(1)
ii iii i iv
(2)
i ii
iii iv
(3)
iii ii iv i
(4)
iv i ii iii
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.
Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the urine. This is observed when
blood glucose level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this is called renal
threshold value for glucose. Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals in
the joint.
Renal calculi are
precipitates of calcium phosphate produced in the pelvis of the kidney.
Glomerular nephritis is
the inflammatory condition of glomerulus characterised by proteinuria and
haematuria.
155.
Match the items
given in Column I with those in Column II
and select the correct option
given below:
Column I Column II
(Function) (Part of Excretory system)
a.
Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
b.
Concentration ii. Ureter
of urine
c.
Transport of iii. Urinary bladder urine
d.
Storage of iv. Malpighian urine corpuscle
v. Proximal convoluted tubule
a b c d
(1)
v iv i ii
(2)
iv i
ii
iii
(3)
iv v
ii
iii
(4)
v iv
i iii
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of
very fine
particles having molecular weight less
than 68,000 daltons
through malpighian corpuscle.
Concentration
of urine refers to water absorption from glomerular filtrate
as a result of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by counter-current
mechanism in Henle's loop.
Urine is carried from kidney to
bladder through ureter.
Urinary bladder is concerned with
storage of urine.
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-AA) ACHLA
156.
Which of the
following gastric cells indirectly
help in erythropoiesis?
(1)
Goblet cells
(2)
Mucous cells
(3)
Chief cells
(4)
Parietal cells
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in diet from ferric to ferrous
form so that it can be absorbed easily and used during erythropoiesis.
Intrinsic factor is essential for the
absorption of vitamin B12 and its deficiency causes pernicious anaemia.
157.
Match the items
given in Column I with those in Column II
and select the correct option
given below :
Column I Column II
a.
Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
b.
Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
c.
Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism
a b c
(1) (i)
(iii) (ii)
(2) (i)
(ii) (iii)
(3) (iii)
(ii) (i)
(4) (ii)
(iii) (i)
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.
Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during coagulation. These strands forms a
network and the meshes of which are occupied by blood cells, this structure
finally forms a clot.
Antibodies
are derived from g-Globulin fraction of
plasma proteins which means globulins are involved
in defence mechanisms.
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
responsible for BCOP.
158.
Which
of the following is an occupational
respiratory disorder?
(1) Botulism (2) Silicosis
(3) Anthracis (4) Emphysema
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica dust in the workers
involved grinding or stone
breaking industries.
Long exposure can give
rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious lung damage.
Anthrax is a serious
infectious disease caused by
Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects domestic and wild animals. Emphysema
is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which
respiratory surface is decreased.
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
by Clostridium
botulinum.
159.
Calcium
is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
(1)
Detaches the myosin
head from the actin filament.
(2)
Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
(3)
Binds to troponin to
remove the masking of active sites
on actin for myosin.
(4)
Prevents the
formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
Answer ( 3 )
Sol. · Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level many folds in the sarcoplasm.
·
Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin (troponin
"C") which is masking the active site
on actin filament and displaces
the sub-unit of troponin.
·
Once the active site
is exposed, head of the myosin attaches and initiate contraction by sliding the actin
over myosin.
160.
Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
(1) Nucleic acids and SER
(2) DNA and RNA
(3) Proteins and lipids
(4) Free ribosomes and RER
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.
Nissl granules are present in the cyton and even extend into the dendrite but
absent in axon and rest of the neuron.
Nissl granules are in
fact composed of free ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for protein
synthesis.
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-AA) ACHLA
161.
Which of these statements is incorrect?
(1)
Glycolysis
operates as long as it is supplied
with NAD that can
pick up hydrogen atoms
(2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(3)
Enzymes
of TCA cycle are present
in mitochondrial matrix
(4)
Oxidative
phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. Oxidative
phosphorylation takes place in inner mitochondrial membrane.
162.
Select the incorrect match :
(1)
Submetacentric – L-shaped chromosomes chromosomes
(2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(3)
Lampbrush – Diplotene
bivalents chromosomes
(4)
Polytene – Oocytes of chromosomes amphibians
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. Polytene chromosomes
are found in salivary glands of insects of order Diptera.
163.
Which of the
following terms describe human dentition?
(1) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. In humans, dentition is
·
Thecodont
: Teeth
are present in the sockets
of the jaw bone called alveoli.
·
Diphyodont
: Teeth
erupts twice, temporary milk
or deciduous teeth are replaced by a set of permanent or adult teeth.
·
Heterodont dentition
: Dentition consists of different types of teeth namely incisors, canine,
premolars and molars.
164.
Which of the following
events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
(1) Cleavage of signal peptide
(2) Protein glycosylation
(3) Protein folding
(4) Phospholipid synthesis
Answer ( 4 )
Sol.
Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
are involved in lipid synthesis.
165.
Many ribosomes may
associate with a single mRNA to form
multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
termed as
(1)
Plastidome
(2)
Polyhedral bodies
(3)
Polysome
(4)
Nucleosome
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
The phenomenon of association of many ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or ergasomes.
166.
In which disease
does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic
inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
(1)
Ringworm disease
(2)
Ascariasis
(3)
Elephantiasis
(4)
Amoebiasis
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm,
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by Culex mosquito.
167.
Which of the
following is not an autoimmune disease?
(1)
Alzheimer's disease
(2)
Rheumatoid arthritis
(3)
Psoriasis
(4)
Vitiligo
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder in which antibodies are produced against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin
also characterised as autoimmune disorder.
Psoriasis is a skin
disease that causes itchy or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is due to deficiency of neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
35
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-AA) ACHLA
168.
Among
the following sets of examples
for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :
(1)
Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(2)
Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(3)
Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(4)
Eye of octopus, bat and man
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. Divergent evolution occurs in the same structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of vertebrates
which have developed along
different directions due to adaptation to different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat and man are
examples of analogous organs showing convergent evolution.
169.
Conversion
of milk to curd
improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(1)
Vitamin B12
(2) Vitamin A
(3) Vitamin D
(4) Vitamin E
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. · Curd is more nourishing than milk.
·
It
has enriched presence of vitamins specially Vit-B12.
170.
The
similarity of bone structure
in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Analogy
(3) Homology
(4) Adaptive radiation
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.
In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs are similar but their forelimbs
are adapted in different way as per their adaptation, hence example of
homology.
171.
Which
of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood
groups’ in humans?
a.
Dominance
b.
Co-dominance
c.
Multiple allele
d.
Incomplete dominance
e.
Polygenic inheritance
(1) b, d and e (2) a, b and c
(3) b, c and e (4) a, c and e
Answer ( 2 )
Sol. · IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
relationship
·
IAIB - Codominance
·
IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
forms of a gene (multiple allelism)
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